Mailing List Archive

TLDs (was: domain literals)
Julian Mehnle wrote:

> It's obviously unspecified (as unfortunate as it may be)

The current state of the art wrt 2821bis is that it will
adopt the 2822 concept, one or more dot separated labels.

Which is BTW what I originally asked in November 2004:

Is the "1" in subdomain 1*( "." subdomain ) intentional
or a typo. It clearly was intentional, but the author
now changed his mind after checking out the same ideas
as we over the years: optional trailing dot everywhere
but mandatory for TLDs, no trailing dot anywhere unless
it's a TLD, did I miss something ?

So now it will be no trailing nowhere (as is in 2821 and
2822), but allowing all FQDNs. Figuring out if a single
label is garbage, something local, or a FQDN is left as
an exercise for implementors.

We've to wait for the next draft what the prose exactly
will be.

> the test suite should not require any specific behavior.

Well, so far nobody proposed that "crash" or "TempError"
is acceptable. I've tracked this issue directly below
your similar problem with invalid domains:

http://www.openspf.org/RFC_4408/Errata#permerror-invalid-domains
http://www.openspf.org/RFC_4408/Errata#TLD

There's yet no problem statement for your case, is this
about crap like target-name foo..bar (adjacent dots) ?

> the spec doesn't say "MUST be an FQDN" or anything to
> that effect.

<target-name> is clearly underspecified, and as that has
confused several developers it's also a clear erratum.

But just stating "underspecified" is lame, let's talk
about it again in some weeks when we know what 2821bis
will (or rather would) say.

Frank


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Re: TLDs [ In reply to ]
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Frank Ellermann wrote:
> Julian Mehnle wrote:
> > the test suite should not require any specific behavior.
>
> Well, so far nobody proposed that "crash" or "TempError" is acceptable.

Why would an implementation crash on "a:%{h}" with <helo> = "OEMCOMPUTER"?

Why do you want to test _that_ case for crashes and not a million other
weird cases?


> I've tracked this issue directly below your similar problem with invalid
> domains:
>
> http://www.openspf.org/RFC_4408/Errata#permerror-invalid-domains

Who proposed that one??

I certainly did not propose that for v=spf1. I said I'd agree that v=spf3
should work this way, but that v=spf1 cannot be changed retroactively like
this.

> There's yet no problem statement for your case,

It's not _my_ case. Whose is it really?

> > the spec doesn't say "MUST be an FQDN" or anything to
> > that effect.
>
> <target-name> is clearly underspecified, and as that has confused several
> developers it's also a clear erratum.

Unspecifiedness is NOT generally a bug, and confused developers aren't a
good enough justification for specifying _new_ behavior in v=spf1.

Unspecifiedness is a bug only when it harms interoperability. Is this the
case here?

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